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Re: Cómo se dice therapod y synapsid en español?



"Ceratopsianos" is a just corruption of the English "Ceratopsians"... the correct name is "ceratópsidos" as far as I know.

On 16 Apr 2010, at 08:40, Jocelyn Falconnet wrote:

Are you sure ? I know few about Spanish, but as Ceratopsia =/= Ceratopsidae... ceratopsianos =/= ceratópsidos. For those who rely on Wiki: http://es.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ceratopsia/ and http:// es.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ceratopsidae/

PS: and as I like ICZN rules and Ancient Greek, we should not forget that those names based on *Ceratops* are just terrible. Just like those based on *Gorgonops*, by the way. And please, I don't care about the so-called prevailing usage: why should we be an exception while all other zoologists follows strictly the ICZN rules ?

Luis Rey a écrit :
I find this discussion very funny... there is no such "mystery"  .
Since I seem to be the the only Castilian speaking in this list (surely I'm not!), I >already< corrected Dora (including part of her "periquito" phrase that was wrong). Yes the correct answer (and there are NO other ways of writing the words. YES there >is< a "Spanish standard" in this case) is : terópodo y sinápsido. Which doesn't mean that we can't find some idiot-spelled things like "ceratopsiano"(bogus translation of ceratopsian) when you have the correct "ceratópsido" ... something that I have unfortunately read in the Spanish translation of "Field Guide of Dinosaurs". A shame!

On 16 Apr 2010, at 04:36, John Wilkins wrote:


On 16/04/2010, at 8:46 AM, Raptorial Talon wrote:

No, Raptorial.

It's like David said:
Es como dijo David:

TERÓPODO y SINÁPSIDO.

I gathered that when I read his post.

I was going by a memory of phonetic pronunciation, hence my
recommending that one check a site where it would be correct.

I do have to wonder if speakers of other languages have arguments
about the correct (i.e. etymological) pronunciation of Latinate terms as we English-speakers do. Obviously there's no real standard between
languages . . . which I suppose is an argument against having them
within a language.

There is a nice article on this at Wiki, of course

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_pronunciation#Pronunciation

It seems each language uses its own phonological practices with Latin.

I recall from studying Latin for ten minutes back in the 80s that there had been a movement to reform Latin translation back in the 30s, removing soft "g"s and "c"s, and so on. I was taught this, so that I annoy every biologist I speak to.

http://www.jstor.org/pss/2871569

--

John Wilkins, Assistant Professor, Philosophy, Bond Uni
john@wilkins.id.au
"Correlation doesn't imply causation, but it does waggle its eyebrows suggestively and gesture furtively while mouthing 'look over there'." <http://xkcd.com/552/>

Luis Rey

Visit my website
http://www.luisrey.ndtilda.co.uk